Quote Originally Posted by Ashton View Post
No I understood it and there is already case law that prohibits it... It's nothing out of the box. We're not talking gay marriage here... We're talking simple protecting of people based upon who they decide to vote on which is their right.
There is a prohibition upon government discrimination based upon how one votes but if you think you have a case cite for private discrimination, let's see it. I can see an application of a particular Colorado statute if an employer discriminated against an employee (CRS 24-34-402.5) but not a sales transaction.